How does the effective interest method work for bond amortization?
I'm confused about bond amortization using the effective interest method for CFA Level I. I understand the concept of premium and discount bonds, but the period-by-period journal entries trip me up. How does interest expense differ from the coupon payment, and how does the carrying value converge to par?
The effective interest method ensures that interest expense each period reflects a constant yield (the market rate at issuance) applied to the bond's carrying value. This is required under both IFRS and US GAAP.
Key Principle:
- Interest expense = Carrying value x Market rate (at issuance)
- Coupon payment = Face value x Coupon rate
- Amortization = Difference between interest expense and coupon payment
Discount Bond Example:
Galveston Energy issues a $1,000,000 face value, 3-year bond with a 4% annual coupon when the market rate is 6%. Coupons paid annually.
Issuance price = PV of coupons + PV of principal
= $40,000 x [(1 - 1.06^-3)/0.06] + $1,000,000 x 1.06^-3
= $40,000 x 2.6730 + $1,000,000 x 0.8396
= $106,920 + $839,619 = $946,539
| Year | Beg. CV | Interest Exp (6%) | Coupon (4%) | Amortization | End CV |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | $946,539 | $56,792 | $40,000 | $16,792 | $963,331 |
| 2 | $963,331 | $57,800 | $40,000 | $17,800 | $981,131 |
| 3 | $981,131 | $58,869 | $40,000 | $18,869 | $1,000,000 |
How it works: Interest expense exceeds the coupon payment for a discount bond, so the carrying value increases toward par each period. The amortization is added to the bond's carrying value.
Premium Bond — Reverse Logic:
If the coupon were 8% and market rate 6%, the bond would sell above par. Interest expense would be less than the coupon, and carrying value would decrease toward par.
Cash Flow Classification:
- Coupon payments: Operating cash outflow (most of the time)
- Principal at maturity: Financing cash outflow
- Under IFRS, interest paid can be classified as either operating or financing
Key exam tip: Under the effective interest method, interest expense changes each period because the carrying value changes. Under the straight-line method (allowed under US GAAP as a simplification), amortization is the same each period. If a question says 'effective interest method,' the expense must reflect the market rate times the current carrying value.
Practice bond amortization schedules in our CFA Level I FRA course.
Master Level I with our CFA Course
107 lessons · 200+ hours· Expert instruction
Related Questions
What exactly is the Capital Market Expectations (CME) framework and why does it matter for asset allocation?
How do business cycle phases affect asset class return expectations?
Can someone explain the Grinold–Kroner model step by step with numbers?
How do you forecast fixed-income returns using the building-blocks approach?
PPP vs Interest Rate Parity for forecasting exchange rates — when do I use which?
Join the Discussion
Ask questions and get expert answers.