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ValuationAnalyst2026-03-29
frmPart IValuation and Risk ModelsMarket Risk

How does cash flow mapping work for VaR calculations on fixed income positions?

In my FRM Part I material on market risk, there's a section about mapping cash flows to standard risk factors (vertices) for VaR. The idea is that you don't model every individual bond — instead you map each cash flow to nearby benchmark maturities. But how exactly do you split a cash flow between two vertices? And how does this feed into VaR?

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Cash flow mapping is the process of converting complex positions into exposures at standard maturity points (vertices) so that VaR can be computed using a manageable covariance matrix. Without mapping, you'd need volatilities and correlations for every possible maturity — which is impractical.

The Process

Step 1: Identify cash flows

For a coupon bond, list every cash flow with its timing.

Step 2: Map to vertices

Standard vertices might be: 1M, 3M, 6M, 1Y, 2Y, 5Y, 10Y, 30Y. Each cash flow gets split between the two nearest vertices.

Step 3: Splitting rules

The split preserves three properties:

  1. Market value — the PV of the mapped cash flows equals the PV of the original
  2. Duration — the duration contribution is preserved
  3. Variance — the variance contribution is preserved (uses the correlation between the two vertices)

Worked Example

Falconridge Securities holds a bond with a $500,000 cash flow due in 3.5 years. The nearby vertices are 2Y and 5Y.

Market data:

  • 2Y zero rate: 4.2%, volatility: 0.65%
  • 5Y zero rate: 4.8%, volatility: 0.90%
  • Correlation between 2Y and 5Y: 0.92
  • 3.5Y zero rate (interpolated): 4.5%

PV of the cash flow:

PV = 500,000 / (1.045)^3.5 = 500,000 / 1.1647 = $429,322

Duration-preserving split (linear interpolation in time):

  • Weight on 2Y: (5 - 3.5) / (5 - 2) = 1.5 / 3 = 0.50
  • Weight on 5Y: (3.5 - 2) / (5 - 2) = 1.5 / 3 = 0.50

Mapped amounts:

  • 2Y vertex: 0.50 x $429,322 = $214,661
  • 5Y vertex: 0.50 x $429,322 = $214,661
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Step 4: Compute mapped VaR

Now each vertex has a known volatility and the correlation matrix is defined only at the vertices:

sigma_mapped^2 = w_2^2 x sigma_2^2 + w_5^2 x sigma_5^2 + 2 x w_2 x w_5 x rho_{2,5} x sigma_2 x sigma_5

This is a standard 2-asset portfolio variance calculation, which then feeds into the parametric VaR formula.

Key Exam Points

  • Mapping reduces the dimensionality of the VaR problem
  • More vertices = better accuracy but larger covariance matrix
  • The RiskMetrics approach popularized this technique
  • Cash flow mapping works for bonds, swaps, FRAs, and any instrument with deterministic cash flows

Explore more VaR methodology in our FRM course.

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#cash-flow-mapping#var#risk-factors#vertices#riskmetrics