When should I use Monte Carlo simulation instead of parametric VaR, and how does it actually work?
I'm in the Quantitative Analysis section of FRM Part I and struggling to understand when Monte Carlo simulation adds value over the simpler parametric (variance-covariance) approach for estimating VaR. My study materials say Monte Carlo is better for non-linear instruments, but I don't get the mechanics of how it generates the loss distribution. Can someone explain the step-by-step process?
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