What is the cross-currency basis, and why does it deviate from zero even when covered interest rate parity should hold?
I'm working through FRM Part I fixed income and I see references to the cross-currency basis spread being persistently negative for certain currency pairs. Covered interest rate parity says the basis should be zero. What's driving the deviation, and what are the implications for swap pricing?
The cross-currency basis represents the additional spread paid or received in a cross-currency basis swap beyond what covered interest rate parity (CIP) would predict. In theory, CIP should hold exactly, making the basis zero. In practice, persistent deviations arise from structural supply-demand imbalances in dollar funding markets.\n\nCovered Interest Rate Parity Recap:\n\nCIP states that the forward exchange rate should fully offset interest rate differentials:\n\nF/S = (1 + r_d) / (1 + r_f)\n\nIf this holds, a cross-currency basis swap (exchanging floating rates in two currencies) should price at flat -- no additional spread. The cross-currency basis (b) is the deviation:\n\nFlat-rate payer receives: Foreign floating rate + b\n\nWhy the Basis Deviates:\n\n`mermaid\ngraph TD\n A[\"Structural USD Demand
Non-US banks need dollars\"] --> B[\"Borrow USD via FX swaps
Supply local currency\"]\n B --> C[\"Excess demand for USD
in FX swap market\"]\n C --> D[\"Negative basis
USD lender earns premium\"]\n E[\"Regulatory Constraints\"] --> C\n F[\"Quarter-end balance sheet
window dressing\"] --> C\n G[\"Central bank USD
swap lines\"] -->|\"Partially offset\"| D\n D --> H[\"Persistent CIP violation
e.g., EUR/USD basis = -20 bps\"]\n`\n\nWorked Example:\nHarborview Asset Management wants to convert EUR-denominated returns into USD for 1 year. The EUR/USD cross-currency basis is -18 bps.\n\nWithout basis: Harborview swaps EUR floating for USD floating at par interest rate differential.\n\nWith -18 bps basis: Harborview receives USD SOFR but pays EUR EURIBOR minus 18 bps. Equivalently, obtaining dollar funding via the FX swap market costs 18 bps more than the direct USD borrowing rate.\n\nOn a EUR 200 million notional:\nAnnual basis cost: 200,000,000 x 0.0018 = EUR 360,000\n\nThis cost reflects the scarcity premium for dollar funding.\n\nKey Drivers of Basis Movements:\n1. Quarter/year-end effects -- Banks reduce balance sheets for regulatory reporting, widening the basis\n2. Central bank policies -- Fed swap lines and dollar liquidity operations compress the basis\n3. Hedging demand -- Japanese life insurers hedging USD bond portfolios create persistent negative JPY/USD basis\n4. Leverage ratio constraints -- Basel III leverage ratios make FX swap intermediation capital-intensive\n\nExam Relevance:\nThe cross-currency basis is a direct measure of dollar funding stress and a violation of a textbook no-arbitrage condition. Understanding why arbitrage fails to eliminate the basis (capital constraints, counterparty limits, regulatory costs) is central to modern fixed-income risk management.\n\nExplore cross-currency risk in our FRM study materials.
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