How is a minimum volatility portfolio constructed, and why does the low-volatility anomaly challenge the CAPM prediction that higher risk equals higher return?
For CFA Level II I need to understand the minimum volatility approach. The low-vol anomaly seems to directly contradict CAPM — low-risk stocks earn similar or higher risk-adjusted returns than high-risk stocks. How do practitioners construct min-vol portfolios, and what explains this anomaly?
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