Which items are translated at the historical rate vs. current rate under the temporal method?
I'm studying foreign currency translation for CFA Level II and the temporal method is driving me crazy. I know it's used when the functional currency differs from the local currency (e.g., a foreign subsidiary that operates as an extension of the parent). But I keep forgetting which balance sheet items use the historical rate and which use the current rate.
The temporal method translates items based on when they were measured — hence the name 'temporal.' Items measured at current value use the current exchange rate; items measured at historical cost use the historical rate.
The Core Rule:
| Measurement Basis | Exchange Rate Used |
|---|---|
| Historical cost | Historical rate |
| Current/fair value | Current rate |
Balance Sheet Translation:
| Item | Rate | Why |
|---|---|---|
| Cash and receivables | Current | Monetary — settled at current value |
| Marketable securities (at FV) | Current | Measured at fair value |
| Inventory (at cost) | Historical | Measured at historical cost |
| Inventory (at NRV/market) | Current | Measured at current value |
| PP&E (net) | Historical | Measured at historical cost |
| Accounts payable | Current | Monetary — settled at current value |
| Long-term debt | Current | Monetary |
| Common stock | Historical | Equity — original issuance rate |
| Retained earnings | Mixed | Balancing figure |
Income Statement Translation:
| Item | Rate |
|---|---|
| Revenue | Average rate (proxy for rate at transaction date) |
| Most expenses | Average rate |
| COGS | Historical (matches inventory) |
| Depreciation | Historical (matches PP&E) |
| Amortization | Historical (matches intangible) |
Remeasurement Gain/Loss:
Because the balance sheet will not balance after translation (monetary items at current rate, non-monetary at historical), a remeasurement gain or loss is plugged into the income statement (not OCI). This affects reported net income and earnings volatility.
Example: Kendrick Automotive (US parent, USD functional) has a subsidiary in the UK. The pound weakened from $1.35 to $1.20 during the year. The subsidiary holds net monetary liabilities of GBP 8 million.
Net monetary liability exposure = GBP 8,000,000
Exchange rate change = $1.35 - $1.20 = $0.15 per GBP (depreciation)
Remeasurement gain = GBP 8,000,000 x $0.15 = $1,200,000 gain
Why a gain? The subsidiary owes pounds that are now worth less in dollar terms.
Contrast with Current Rate Method:
- Current rate method: ALL assets/liabilities at current rate, translation adjustment in OCI
- Temporal method: Mixed rates, remeasurement gain/loss in net income
Exam tip: If a company has net monetary assets in a depreciating currency, the temporal method produces a loss. If net monetary liabilities in a depreciating currency, it produces a gain. Memorize: 'liabilities in weak currency = good.'
For more currency translation practice, check our CFA Level II question bank.
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