How do you calculate the fair value of an equity index future and identify when it trades rich or cheap?
My FRM study group has been arguing about whether S&P 500 futures are currently trading above or below fair value. I know the cost-of-carry model is the key, but I'm unsure how to properly account for the continuous dividend yield. Can someone demonstrate with a real-world style example?
The fair value of an equity index futures contract is determined by the cost-of-carry model, which balances the financing cost of holding the index against the dividends received.
Cost-of-Carry Formula (Continuous)
F = S x e^{(r - q) x T}
where:
- S = current spot index level
- r = risk-free rate (continuously compounded)
- q = continuous dividend yield
- T = time to expiry in years
Worked Example
The Grandview 500 index is currently at 5,280. The 3-month risk-free rate is 4.60% (continuously compounded), and the index has a continuous dividend yield of 1.45%. The futures contract expires in 63 trading days (roughly 91 calendar days).
T = 91 / 365 = 0.2493
F = 5,280 x e^{(0.046 - 0.0145) x 0.2493}
F = 5,280 x e^{0.00785}
F = 5,280 x 1.00788
F = 5,321.6
If the actual futures price is 5,340, the contract is trading 18.4 points rich to fair value.
Arbitrage Implications
| Futures vs Fair Value | Strategy | Action |
|---|---|---|
| Futures > Fair Value (rich) | Cash-and-carry | Buy index, sell futures, finance at r |
| Futures < Fair Value (cheap) | Reverse cash-and-carry | Sell index short, buy futures, invest proceeds |
Practical Frictions
In reality, transaction costs, margin requirements, short-selling constraints, and the discrete nature of dividends create a no-arbitrage band around fair value — typically 1-3 index points for major indices.
Exam Tip: If the question gives discrete dividends instead of a continuous yield, use F = (S - PV(Dividends)) x e^{r x T} instead.
Check out our FRM Part I question bank for more futures pricing problems.
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