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AcadiFi
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ExamDay_Warrior2026-04-09
frmPart IIMarket RiskExpected Shortfall

How do you calculate Expected Shortfall and why is it replacing VaR in Basel regulations?

My FRM Part II material says ES is now the regulatory standard under FRTB, replacing VaR. I understand ES is the average loss beyond VaR, but I need help with the actual calculation. Also, what makes ES 'coherent' and VaR not?

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Expected Shortfall (also called CVaR or Conditional VaR) answers the question VaR ignores: 'When things go bad, how bad do they get?' VaR tells you the threshold; ES tells you the average loss beyond that threshold.

Definition:

ES at confidence level alpha = E[Loss | Loss > VaR_alpha]

At 97.5% confidence: ES = average of all losses in the worst 2.5% of scenarios.

Calculation Methods:

Method 1: Historical Simulation

Sort 1000 historical P&L scenarios. For 97.5% ES:

  • Find the worst 25 scenarios (1000 x 2.5%)
  • ES = average of these 25 losses

Worked Example — Pinnacle Trading Desk:

Pinnacle has 1000 days of P&L data. The 25 worst daily losses (in $M):

-8.2, -7.5, -6.9, -6.3, -5.8, -5.5, -5.2, -4.9, -4.7, -4.5,

-4.3, -4.1, -3.9, -3.8, -3.6, -3.5, -3.3, -3.2, -3.0, -2.9,

-2.8, -2.7, -2.6, -2.5, -2.4

97.5% VaR = $2.4M (the 25th worst loss — the threshold)

97.5% ES = average of all 25 = $4.24M

ES is 77% higher than VaR, showing the tail is substantially worse than the threshold.

Method 2: Parametric (Normal Distribution)

For normal returns: ES = mu + sigma x [phi(z_alpha) / (1 - alpha)]

Where phi is the standard normal PDF and z_alpha is the VaR z-score.

At 97.5%: z = 1.96, phi(1.96) = 0.0584

ES = sigma x 0.0584 / 0.025 = sigma x 2.338

Compare with VaR = 1.96 x sigma. ES is about 19% higher under normality.

Why ES Is Coherent and VaR Is Not:

A risk measure is coherent if it satisfies four axioms:

  1. Monotonicity: If portfolio A always loses more than B, its risk should be higher
  2. Translation invariance: Adding cash reduces risk by that amount
  3. Positive homogeneity: Doubling the portfolio doubles the risk
  4. Subadditivity: Risk(A+B) <= Risk(A) + Risk(B) — diversification should not increase risk

VaR fails subadditivity. It's possible to construct portfolios where the combined VaR exceeds the sum of individual VaRs. This happens with concentrated, non-normal tail risks.

Classic counterexample: Two bonds, each with 4% default probability and $100 loss on default:

  • Individual 95% VaR = $0 (each defaults < 5% of the time)
  • Combined portfolio: probability of at least one defaulting = 1 - 0.96^2 = 7.84%
  • Combined 95% VaR = $100 > $0 + $0

VaR says combining them is riskier than holding them separately — nonsensical from a diversification standpoint. ES doesn't have this problem.

FRTB Regulatory Shift:

The Basel Committee's Fundamental Review of the Trading Book (FRTB) replaced 99% VaR with 97.5% ES as the market risk capital standard. The 97.5% ES is calibrated to be roughly equivalent to 99% VaR for normal distributions, but captures tail risk much better for non-normal distributions.

Practice ES calculations in our FRM Part II question bank.

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