How do you use DV01 to hedge interest rate risk with swaps?
I'm studying FRM Part I and I get confused when it comes to DV01-based hedging with interest rate swaps. For example, if a bank has a fixed-rate loan portfolio and wants to hedge using a pay-fixed swap, how do you figure out the right notional? Can someone walk me through the mechanics?
DV01 (Dollar Value of a Basis Point) measures how much the value of a position changes when interest rates shift by 1 basis point (0.01%). For hedging with interest rate swaps, the goal is to match the DV01 of your exposure with the DV01 of the swap so that the combined position has near-zero rate sensitivity.
Step-by-Step Mechanics
- Calculate the DV01 of the exposure. Suppose Ridgeway National Bank has a $500 million fixed-rate loan portfolio with a modified duration of 4.2 years. The DV01 is:
DV01_portfolio = $500,000,000 x 4.2 x 0.0001 = $210,000
This means for every 1 bp rise in rates, the portfolio loses $210,000 in value.
- Determine the swap DV01. A 5-year pay-fixed, receive-floating interest rate swap with $100 million notional might have a DV01 of roughly $45,000 (the fixed leg has duration exposure while the floating leg resets frequently and has near-zero duration).
- Compute the hedge notional. You need enough swap notional so the swap DV01 offsets the portfolio DV01:
Hedge Ratio = DV01_portfolio / DV01_swap_per_unit
Notional needed = ($210,000 / $45,000) x $100,000,000 = $466.7 million
- Execute the hedge. Ridgeway enters a $466.7 million pay-fixed swap. If rates rise 25 bps, the portfolio loses approximately $210,000 x 25 = $5.25 million, but the swap gains roughly the same amount.
Key Pitfalls:
- DV01 changes as rates move (convexity), so the hedge needs periodic rebalancing.
- Floating leg resets introduce basis risk if the loan portfolio reprices on a different index than the swap.
- Cross-currency swaps add FX DV01 that must be managed separately.
For more practice on swap hedging, check out our FRM Part I question bank.
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