A
AcadiFi
QM
QuantRisk_Maya2026-04-02
frmPart IQuantitative AnalysisOperational Risk

Why do we model operational loss severity with a lognormal distribution?

In FRM Part I, loss severity is often modeled as lognormal. But why not just use a normal distribution? What makes lognormal a better fit for loss amounts, and how do you estimate the parameters from data?

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The lognormal distribution is preferred for loss severity modeling because it's always positive, right-skewed, and captures the multiplicative nature of operational losses. Most losses are small, but the long right tail accommodates the occasional massive outlier.

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