How do you price a European call option using a two-period binomial model?
I'm working through CFA Level II Derivatives and I can handle one-period binomial models, but the two-period version is confusing. How do you work backward through two periods, and how are the risk-neutral probabilities used? A step-by-step numerical example would be really helpful.
The two-period binomial model extends the one-period approach by building a tree with three time steps (now, period 1, period 2) and working backward from the terminal payoffs. Let's walk through it completely.
Setup — Prescott Biotech European Call
- Current stock price (S): $40
- Strike price (K): $42
- Up factor (u): 1.25 (stock goes up 25%)
- Down factor (d): 0.80 (stock goes down 20%)
- Risk-free rate per period (r): 5%
- Periods: 2
Step 1: Build the Stock Price Tree
- Suu = $40 x 1.25 x 1.25 = $62.50
- Sud = $40 x 1.25 x 0.80 = $40.00
- Sdd = $40 x 0.80 x 0.80 = $25.60
Step 2: Calculate Terminal Call Payoffs
- c_uu = max(0, $62.50 - $42) = $20.50
- c_ud = max(0, $40.00 - $42) = $0.00
- c_dd = max(0, $25.60 - $42) = $0.00
Step 3: Calculate Risk-Neutral Probability
pi = (1 + r - d) / (u - d) = (1.05 - 0.80) / (1.25 - 0.80) = 0.25 / 0.45 = 0.5556
(1 - pi) = 0.4444
Step 4: Work Backward to Period 1
At each Period 1 node, the call value is the discounted expected value of the next period:
c_u = [pi x c_uu + (1 - pi) x c_ud] / (1 + r)
= [0.5556 x $20.50 + 0.4444 x $0] / 1.05
= $11.39 / 1.05 = $10.85
c_d = [pi x c_ud + (1 - pi) x c_dd] / (1 + r)
= [0.5556 x $0 + 0.4444 x $0] / 1.05 = $0.00
Step 5: Work Backward to Period 0
c_0 = [pi x c_u + (1 - pi) x c_d] / (1 + r)
= [0.5556 x $10.85 + 0.4444 x $0.00] / 1.05
= $6.03 / 1.05 = $5.74
The European call is worth $5.74.
Why Risk-Neutral Probabilities?
The risk-neutral probability (0.5556) is NOT the real-world probability of the stock going up. It's a mathematical construct that allows us to discount expected payoffs at the risk-free rate instead of figuring out the correct risk-adjusted rate. The resulting price is the same as what no-arbitrage replication would give.
Verification via Direct Formula:
c_0 = [pi^2 x c_uu + 2 x pi x (1-pi) x c_ud + (1-pi)^2 x c_dd] / (1+r)^2
= [0.3086 x $20.50 + 2 x 0.2469 x $0 + 0.1975 x $0] / (1.05)^2
= $6.33 / 1.1025 = $5.74 (confirmed)
Exam Tip: CFA Level II will typically give you u, d, and r, and expect you to calculate pi, build the payoff tree, and work backward. Practice until the steps are mechanical.
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