How do you adjust the Black-Scholes-Merton model for stocks that pay a continuous dividend yield?
I'm studying for CFA Level II and I know the standard BSM formula, but the Merton extension for continuous dividend yield confuses me. Why do we replace S with S*e^(-qT), and what does this do to the option Greeks? A numerical comparison would be very helpful.
Unlock with Scholar — $19/month
Get full access to all Q&A answers, practice question explanations, and progress tracking.
No credit card required for free trial
Master Level II with our CFA Course
107 lessons · 200+ hours· Expert instruction
Related Questions
What exactly is the Capital Market Expectations (CME) framework and why does it matter for asset allocation?
How do business cycle phases affect asset class return expectations?
Can someone explain the Grinold–Kroner model step by step with numbers?
How do you forecast fixed-income returns using the building-blocks approach?
PPP vs Interest Rate Parity for forecasting exchange rates — when do I use which?
Join the Discussion
Ask questions and get expert answers.