How is convertible preferred stock accounted for, and how does it affect diluted EPS?
I'm working through CFA Level I equity topics and I'm confused about convertible preferred stock. When preferred shares are converted to common, what entries are recorded? And for diluted EPS, do you use the if-converted method? A numerical example would be really helpful.
Convertible preferred stock gives holders the right to exchange their preferred shares for a predetermined number of common shares. The accounting at issuance, conversion, and the EPS impact are all testable at CFA Level I.
Issuance — No Bifurcation Under US GAAP:
Unlike convertible bonds, convertible preferred stock under US GAAP is recorded entirely as equity — there is no separation of the conversion feature. The full proceeds go to preferred stock.
Under IFRS, if the conversion is at a fixed ratio, it is also classified entirely as equity.
Conversion Journal Entry:
When preferred stockholders convert, the book value method is used (no gain or loss recognized):
- Debit: Preferred Stock (at carrying value)
- Debit: APIC — Preferred (if any)
- Credit: Common Stock (par of new shares)
- Credit: APIC — Common (excess)
Worked Example — Stratton Holdings:
Stratton issued 20,000 shares of 55 per share. Each preferred share is convertible into 4 common shares ($1 par).
At issuance:
| Account | Debit | Credit |
|---|---|---|
| Cash | $1,100,000 | |
| Preferred Stock (par) | $1,000,000 | |
| APIC — Preferred | $100,000 |
Conversion of all 20,000 preferred shares: Common shares issued = 20,000 × 4 = 80,000 shares
| Account | Debit | Credit |
|---|---|---|
| Preferred Stock | $1,000,000 | |
| APIC — Preferred | $100,000 | |
| Common Stock (80,000 × $1) | $80,000 | |
| APIC — Common | $1,020,000 |
No gain or loss — total equity is unchanged.
Diluted EPS — If-Converted Method:
For diluted EPS, assume all convertible preferred shares were converted at the beginning of the period:
- Add back preferred dividends to the numerator (because if converted, no preferred dividends would be paid)
- Add the new common shares to the denominator
Stratton data for the year:
- Net income: $5,000,000
- Preferred dividends: 50 × 4% dividend rate)
- Basic shares outstanding: 500,000
- Potential shares from conversion: 80,000
Basic EPS: (200,000) / 500,000 = $9.60
Diluted EPS (if-converted): 5,000,000 / 580,000 = $8.62
Since diluted EPS (9.60), the convertible preferred is dilutive and must be included.
Key Exam Points:
- Conversion uses book value method — never recognize gains or losses on conversion.
- If diluted EPS > basic EPS after the if-converted adjustment, the preferred is anti-dilutive and excluded.
- Cumulative preferred dividends are subtracted from net income for basic EPS regardless of whether declared.
Explore more EPS scenarios in our CFA Level I question bank.
Master Level I with our CFA Course
107 lessons · 200+ hours· Expert instruction
Related Questions
Why does an early retirement provision lower risk tolerance but high turnover does not — both reduce liabilities, right?
Why does it matter if the pension fund is invested in stocks similar to the sponsor's business?
What is the rule about active vs retired lives and pension plan duration?
Why does the textbook recommend 100% equities for a young employee? That sounds extremely aggressive.
I run my own startup. My income is volatile and tied to my industry. Should I hold ZERO equities in my financial accounts?
Join the Discussion
Ask questions and get expert answers.