Why do zero-coupon bonds have higher convexity than coupon bonds with the same duration?
In CFA Level I fixed income, I learned that zero-coupon bonds have the highest convexity for a given duration. But I thought duration and convexity were separate concepts. Why would having no coupon payments increase convexity? Can someone provide the intuition?
Unlock with Scholar — $19/month
Get full access to all Q&A answers, practice question explanations, and progress tracking.
No credit card required for free trial
Master Level I with our CFA Course
107 lessons · 200+ hours· Expert instruction
Related Questions
What exactly is the Capital Market Expectations (CME) framework and why does it matter for asset allocation?
How do business cycle phases affect asset class return expectations?
Can someone explain the Grinold–Kroner model step by step with numbers?
How do you forecast fixed-income returns using the building-blocks approach?
PPP vs Interest Rate Parity for forecasting exchange rates — when do I use which?
Join the Discussion
Ask questions and get expert answers.