How do upstream and downstream transactions affect equity method accounting?
I understand the basic equity method, but I'm completely lost when it comes to intercompany transactions. What's the difference between upstream and downstream, and how do we eliminate the unrealized profit? A worked example would really help.
This is a tricky area that the CFA Level II exam loves to test. Let me break it down:
Definitions:
- Downstream transaction: The investor sells goods/services TO the investee (associate)
- Upstream transaction: The investee (associate) sells goods/services TO the investor
In both cases, any unrealized profit from the transaction must be eliminated proportionally.
Worked Example — Downstream:
Riverton Manufacturing (investor, 40% stake) sells inventory costing $200,000 to its associate, Crestview Components, for $300,000. At year-end, Crestview still holds 60% of this inventory unsold.
- Total gross profit on sale = $300,000 - $200,000 = $100,000
- Unrealized portion = $100,000 x 60% = $60,000 (still in Crestview's inventory)
- Investor's share to eliminate = $60,000 x 40% = $24,000
Riverton reduces its equity income by $24,000 and reduces the investment account by the same amount.
Worked Example — Upstream:
Crestview Components sells inventory costing $150,000 to Riverton for $225,000. At year-end, Riverton has sold 70% of these goods to third parties.
- Total gross profit = $225,000 - $150,000 = $75,000
- Unrealized portion = $75,000 x 30% = $22,500
- Investor's share to eliminate = $22,500 x 40% = $9,000
Key distinction for the exam:
- Under IFRS, the treatment is the same for both upstream and downstream — eliminate the investor's proportionate share.
- Under US GAAP, downstream transactions require the investor to eliminate 100% of the unrealized profit (not just its proportionate share), since the investor controlled the sale.
| Downstream (IFRS) | Downstream (US GAAP) | Upstream (Both) | |
|---|---|---|---|
| Elimination | Investor's % share | 100% of unrealized profit | Investor's % share |
This GAAP vs. IFRS difference is a high-probability exam question. Practice both scenarios in our CFA Level II Financial Reporting module.
Master Level II with our CFA Course
107 lessons · 200+ hours· Expert instruction
Related Questions
What exactly is the Capital Market Expectations (CME) framework and why does it matter for asset allocation?
How do business cycle phases affect asset class return expectations?
Can someone explain the Grinold–Kroner model step by step with numbers?
How do you forecast fixed-income returns using the building-blocks approach?
PPP vs Interest Rate Parity for forecasting exchange rates — when do I use which?
Join the Discussion
Ask questions and get expert answers.