How do upstream and downstream transactions affect equity method accounting?
I understand the basic equity method, but I'm completely lost when it comes to intercompany transactions. What's the difference between upstream and downstream, and how do we eliminate the unrealized profit? A worked example would really help.
This is a tricky area that the CFA Level II exam loves to test. Let me break it down:
Definitions:
- Downstream transaction: The investor sells goods/services TO the investee (associate)
- Upstream transaction: The investee (associate) sells goods/services TO the investor
In both cases, any unrealized profit from the transaction must be eliminated proportionally.
Worked Example — Downstream:
Riverton Manufacturing (investor, 40% stake) sells inventory costing 300,000. At year-end, Crestview still holds 60% of this inventory unsold.
- Total gross profit on sale = 200,000 = $100,000
- Unrealized portion = 60,000** (still in Crestview's inventory)
- Investor's share to eliminate = 24,000**
Riverton reduces its equity income by $24,000 and reduces the investment account by the same amount.
Worked Example — Upstream:
Crestview Components sells inventory costing 225,000. At year-end, Riverton has sold 70% of these goods to third parties.
- Total gross profit = 150,000 = $75,000
- Unrealized portion = 22,500**
- Investor's share to eliminate = 9,000**
Key distinction for the exam:
- Under IFRS, the treatment is the same for both upstream and downstream — eliminate the investor's proportionate share.
- Under US GAAP, downstream transactions require the investor to eliminate 100% of the unrealized profit (not just its proportionate share), since the investor controlled the sale.
| Downstream (IFRS) | Downstream (US GAAP) | Upstream (Both) | |
|---|---|---|---|
| Elimination | Investor's % share | 100% of unrealized profit | Investor's % share |
This GAAP vs. IFRS difference is a high-probability exam question. Practice both scenarios in our CFA Level II Financial Reporting module.
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