How do I compute FCFE when the company is actively changing its capital structure?
For CFA Level II, I'm trying to value a company using FCFE but the firm is deleveraging — paying down debt each year. Since FCFE = FCFF - Int(1-T) + Net Borrowing, and net borrowing is negative, FCFE shrinks a lot. Is this correct? How do I handle projections when leverage is changing?
When a company is actively changing its capital structure — either leveraging up or deleveraging — the FCFE model becomes more complex because net borrowing is a significant non-zero term.
FCFE Formula:
> FCFE = FCFF - Int(1-T) + Net Borrowing
Or equivalently from NI:
> FCFE = NI + NCC - FCInv - WCInv + Net Borrowing
Example — Merriweather Industries (fictional):
Merriweather has $200M in debt and plans to repay $25M/year for 4 years, then maintain stable debt.
| Year | FCFF | Int(1-T) | Net Borrow | FCFE |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | $80M | $12M | -$25M | $43M |
| 2 | $85M | $10.5M | -$25M | $49.5M |
| 3 | $90M | $9M | -$25M | $56M |
| 4 | $95M | $7.5M | -$25M | $62.5M |
| 5+ | $100M | $6M | $0 | $94M |
Notice how FCFE jumps sharply in Year 5 when deleveraging stops. The terminal value should reflect the stable capital structure, not the transitional one.
Best Practice for Changing Leverage:
- Explicit Forecast Period: Model each year's net borrowing individually during the transition
- Terminal Value: Use the target capital structure in the terminal year — net borrowing = 0 (or equal to reinvestment at the target ratio)
- Discount Rate: If leverage is changing, the cost of equity changes too. Some analysts prefer FCFF/WACC for deleveraging scenarios because WACC is more stable
- Consistency Check: Verify that projected debt levels are consistent with projected interest expense
Exam Tip: The CFA exam loves scenarios where FCFE and FCFF give different signal clarity. When capital structure is unstable, FCFF/WACC is often more reliable. If forced to use FCFE, model net borrowing carefully year by year.
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