FCFE vs. FCFF: what's the difference and when should I use each for valuation?
I'm struggling with free cash flow models in CFA Level II. The curriculum has FCFE (free cash flow to equity) and FCFF (free cash flow to the firm), and each has its own discount rate and formula. I keep mixing up which one gets discounted at WACC vs. the cost of equity. Can someone clarify?
The FCFE vs. FCFF distinction is one of the most important conceptual frameworks in CFA Level II equity valuation. Getting this wrong means using the wrong discount rate, which invalidates your entire valuation.
The Fundamental Difference:
- FCFF = Cash available to ALL capital providers (debt + equity). Discount at WACC.
- FCFE = Cash available to EQUITY holders only (after debt payments). Discount at cost of equity (r).
Formulas:
Or equivalently:
Where:
- NCC = Non-cash charges (depreciation, amortization)
- FCInv = Fixed capital investment (capex)
- WCInv = Working capital investment
- Int(1-t) = After-tax interest expense
Worked Example: Kensington Industrial Group
| Item | Amount |
|---|---|
| Net Income | $82M |
| Depreciation | $24M |
| Interest Expense | $18M |
| Tax Rate | 25% |
| Capex | $35M |
| WC Increase | $8M |
| New Debt Issued | $12M |
| Debt Repaid | $7M |
FCFF: = 24M + 35M - 82M + 13.5M - 8M = $76.5M
FCFE: = 24M - 8M + (7M) = 24M - 8M + 68.0M**
Note: FCFE = FCFF - Int(1-t) + Net Borrowing = 13.5M + 68.0M (checks out)
Loading diagram...
When to Use Each:
| Situation | Use FCFF | Use FCFE |
|---|---|---|
| Changing capital structure | Preferred | Avoid (FCFE changes with leverage) |
| Levered company, stable debt | Either works | Simpler |
| Negative FCFE (high debt service) | Works fine | Problematic (negative value) |
| Valuing the whole firm | Required | Cannot directly |
| Valuing equity directly | Subtract debt from firm value | Direct approach |
Getting Equity Value from FCFF: Firm Value = FCFF / (WACC - g) Equity Value = Firm Value - Market Value of Debt Value per Share = Equity Value / Shares Outstanding
Exam Tip: If a company has significant leverage changes planned, use FCFF because WACC is more stable than the cost of equity when leverage shifts. If the question provides net borrowing data and asks for equity value directly, use FCFE.
Practice FCF valuation models in our CFA Level II question bank on AcadiFi.
Master Level II with our CFA Course
107 lessons · 200+ hours· Expert instruction
Related Questions
Why does an early retirement provision lower risk tolerance but high turnover does not — both reduce liabilities, right?
Why does it matter if the pension fund is invested in stocks similar to the sponsor's business?
What is the rule about active vs retired lives and pension plan duration?
Why does the textbook recommend 100% equities for a young employee? That sounds extremely aggressive.
I run my own startup. My income is volatile and tied to my industry. Should I hold ZERO equities in my financial accounts?
Join the Discussion
Ask questions and get expert answers.