How do I derive a justified EV/EBITDA multiple from fundamentals, rather than just using comps?
CFA Level II equity valuation covers 'justified' multiples derived from fundamentals. I'm comfortable using EV/EBITDA as a relative metric from comparable companies, but the curriculum asks us to derive what the 'correct' multiple should be based on growth, margins, cost of capital, etc. How does this work?
Deriving a justified EV/EBITDA from fundamentals is a powerful Level II skill that connects relative valuation to intrinsic value thinking.
The Approach:
Start from a simple enterprise value model and express it in terms of EBITDA.
Step 1: Basic EV Formula
EV = FCFF_1 / (WACC - g)
Where FCFF is free cash flow to the firm and g is the sustainable growth rate.
Step 2: Express FCFF in Terms of EBITDA
FCFF = EBITDA x (1 - T)(1 - b) - Depreciation x T + Depreciation - CapEx - Change in WC
Simplifying with assumptions:
FCFF ≈ EBITDA x [1 - Tax Rate x (1 - DA/EBITDA) - Reinvestment Rate]
Step 3: Divide Both Sides by EBITDA
EV/EBITDA = FCFF/EBITDA / (WACC - g)
So the justified multiple depends on:
- FCFF-to-EBITDA conversion ratio (affected by tax rate, D&A intensity, reinvestment needs)
- WACC (cost of capital)
- g (growth rate)
Worked Example:
Thunderbridge Industrials has:
- EBITDA: $500M
- Tax rate: 22%
- Depreciation: $120M (24% of EBITDA)
- CapEx: $150M (maintenance + growth)
- Change in working capital: $20M
- WACC: 9%
- Sustainable growth: 3%
FCFF = $500M x (1 - 0.22) - $150M - $20M + $120M x 0.22
FCFF = $390M - $150M - $20M + $26.4M = $246.4M
FCFF/EBITDA = $246.4M / $500M = 0.493
Justified EV/EBITDA = 0.493 / (0.09 - 0.03) = 0.493 / 0.06 = 8.2x
What Drives the Multiple Higher:
| Factor | Effect on EV/EBITDA |
|---|---|
| Higher growth (g) | Higher multiple |
| Lower WACC | Higher multiple |
| Lower tax rate | Higher multiple |
| Lower reinvestment needs | Higher multiple |
| Higher D&A as % of EBITDA | Higher multiple (more tax shield) |
Exam Application: If a comparable company analysis gives you 10x but the justified multiple is 8.2x, the stock may be overvalued relative to its fundamentals. This bridges the gap between relative and intrinsic valuation.
Practice justified multiple derivations in our CFA Level II question bank.
Master Level II with our CFA Course
107 lessons · 200+ hours· Expert instruction
Related Questions
What exactly is the Capital Market Expectations (CME) framework and why does it matter for asset allocation?
How do business cycle phases affect asset class return expectations?
Can someone explain the Grinold–Kroner model step by step with numbers?
How do you forecast fixed-income returns using the building-blocks approach?
PPP vs Interest Rate Parity for forecasting exchange rates — when do I use which?
Join the Discussion
Ask questions and get expert answers.