How do I calculate Macaulay duration and modified duration step by step?
Duration keeps coming up in my CFA Level I practice exams and I keep bombing the calculation questions. I know it's supposed to measure interest rate sensitivity, but I need a clear step-by-step method for computing both Macaulay and modified duration with actual numbers.
Duration is the single most important risk measure in fixed income. Let's build it from scratch.
Macaulay Duration is the weighted-average time to receive a bond's cash flows, where weights are the present values of each cash flow as a fraction of the bond's total price.
Modified Duration adjusts Macaulay duration to directly estimate the percentage price change for a 1% change in yield.
Step-by-Step Example: Consider a bond issued by Northfield Energy:
- Face value: $1,000
- Coupon: 5% annual
- Maturity: 3 years
- YTM: 6%
Step 1 — Identify cash flows and discount:
| Year | Cash Flow | PV Factor (1.06)^-t | PV of CF | Weight (PV/Price) | Year x Weight |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | $50 | 0.9434 | $47.17 | 0.0499 | 0.0499 |
| 2 | $50 | 0.8900 | $44.50 | 0.0470 | 0.0941 |
| 3 | $1,050 | 0.8396 | $881.60 | 0.9321 | 2.7964 |
| Total | $973.27 | 1.0000 | 2.9404 |
Macaulay Duration = 2.9404 years
Step 2 — Modified Duration:
ModDur = MacDur / (1 + y) = 2.9404 / 1.06 = 2.7740 years
Step 3 — Interpret: If YTM rises by 1% (100 bps), the bond's price will fall by approximately: %ΔP ≈ -ModDur x Δy = -2.7740 x 1% = -2.774%
On a 27.01 price drop.
Quick Rules:
- Higher coupon → lower duration (more cash flow arrives sooner)
- Longer maturity → higher duration
- Higher YTM → lower duration (future cash flows are discounted more heavily)
- Zero-coupon bond: Macaulay duration = maturity
Exam Tip: If you see "interest rate sensitivity" or "price risk" on the exam, think duration first. If they want a number in years, give Macaulay duration. If they want the price change estimate, use modified duration.
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