How does the suitability standard work when a client insists on an unsuitable investment?
I understand Standard III(C) says we need to ensure recommendations are suitable for clients. But what happens when a conservative retired client demands you put 80% of their portfolio in crypto? Can you just do it because they asked? What's the CFA Institute's position?
Standard III(C) — Suitability requires that members make a reasonable inquiry into a client's investment experience, risk and return objectives, and financial constraints before making recommendations or taking action.
The Core Framework: Before any recommendation, you must understand the client's:
- Investment objectives (income, growth, capital preservation)
- Risk tolerance (ability AND willingness to take risk)
- Time horizon
- Tax situation
- Liquidity needs
- Legal and regulatory constraints
- Unique circumstances
When the Client Insists on Unsuitable Investments: This is where it gets nuanced. The standard does NOT say you must blindly follow client instructions. Here's the proper protocol:
- Educate — Clearly explain why the proposed allocation is inconsistent with their stated objectives and constraints. Document this conversation.
- Document the risk — If the client still insists, obtain written acknowledgment that they understand the risks and that the allocation deviates from your professional recommendation.
- Reassess the IPS — Perhaps the client's actual risk tolerance differs from what was initially documented. Update the Investment Policy Statement to reflect their true preferences.
- Consider refusing — In extreme cases, if executing the trade would violate your professional judgment and fiduciary duty, you may refuse and even terminate the relationship.
The Retired Client and Crypto Example: Mrs. Dalton is 72, retired, living on a fixed pension, and asks her advisor at Greenhill Wealth to put 80% in cryptocurrency. The advisor should:
- Explain that an 80% crypto allocation is inconsistent with her income needs, low risk capacity, and short time horizon
- Present alternative allocations that incorporate a small crypto position (say 5%) if she wants exposure
- If she insists on 80%, get written documentation and update the IPS
- If the advisor believes this would constitute financial harm, they should consider refusing
Loading diagram...
Managed Accounts vs. Advisory:
- In a discretionary (managed) account, the portfolio manager has more responsibility to maintain suitability because they make the actual decisions.
- In an advisory account, the client makes final decisions, but the advisor still must provide suitable advice and document disagreements.
Exam tip: The CFA exam frequently tests the difference between risk tolerance (willingness) and risk capacity (ability). A client who wants high risk but cannot afford high risk has a conflict that must be resolved — typically by defaulting to the lower of the two.
For more Ethics case studies, explore AcadiFi's CFA Level I practice questions.
Master Level I with our CFA Course
107 lessons · 200+ hours· Expert instruction
Related Questions
Why does an early retirement provision lower risk tolerance but high turnover does not — both reduce liabilities, right?
Why does it matter if the pension fund is invested in stocks similar to the sponsor's business?
What is the rule about active vs retired lives and pension plan duration?
Why does the textbook recommend 100% equities for a young employee? That sounds extremely aggressive.
I run my own startup. My income is volatile and tied to my industry. Should I hold ZERO equities in my financial accounts?
Join the Discussion
Ask questions and get expert answers.