What drives swap spreads and what does a negative swap spread mean?
I'm studying CFA Level II Derivatives and keep encountering swap spreads — the difference between the fixed swap rate and the on-the-run Treasury yield. I understand it should normally be positive (because swap counterparties carry credit risk), but apparently US 30-year swap spreads went negative. How is that possible?
Swap spreads are a fascinating topic that connects derivatives, fixed income, and macroeconomics. Let's break it down.
What is a Swap Spread?
Swap spread = Fixed rate on an interest rate swap − Yield on a matching-maturity Treasury bond
For example, if the 10-year swap rate is 4.35% and the 10-year Treasury yield is 4.10%, the 10-year swap spread is 25 basis points.
Why Should Swap Spreads Be Positive?
In an interest rate swap, you're exchanging fixed payments for SOFR-based floating payments with a counterparty (typically a bank). Since bank counterparties carry some credit risk (unlike Treasuries), the fixed swap rate should exceed the Treasury yield — hence a positive spread.
What Drives Swap Spreads?
- Credit risk perception — When bank creditworthiness deteriorates, swap spreads widen.
- Supply of Treasuries — Heavy Treasury issuance pushes Treasury yields up, compressing swap spreads.
- Balance sheet constraints — Post-2008 regulations (Basel III, Dodd-Frank) limit dealers' balance sheets, affecting their ability to arbitrage swap spread dislocations.
- Hedging demand — Corporate bond issuers who swap fixed to floating increase demand for receiving fixed, pushing swap rates down.
The Negative Swap Spread Puzzle
In the US, 30-year swap spreads turned negative around 2015 and have stayed there intermittently. This seems paradoxical — why would a swap with credit risk yield less than a 'risk-free' Treasury?
Explanation:
- Massive Treasury supply (federal deficits) pushes long-end Treasury yields higher
- Post-crisis regulation makes it expensive for dealers to hold Treasuries on balance sheet
- Heavy demand from pension funds and insurers to receive fixed on long-dated swaps pushes swap rates down
- The net effect: Treasuries become relatively more expensive to hold than swaps, so the spread inverts
Practical Significance:
A portfolio manager at Northcrest Advisors uses swap spreads as a macro signal:
- Widening swap spreads → Rising credit concerns, potential stress in banking sector
- Narrowing/negative swap spreads → Supply-demand imbalance in Treasuries, regulatory constraints
CFA Exam Tip: If a question asks 'which factor most likely explains negative 30-year swap spreads,' look for answers mentioning Treasury supply or regulatory balance sheet constraints — not credit risk (which would push spreads wider, not negative).
Explore more derivatives topics in our CFA Level II course.
Master Level II with our CFA Course
107 lessons · 200+ hours· Expert instruction
Related Questions
What exactly is the Capital Market Expectations (CME) framework and why does it matter for asset allocation?
How do business cycle phases affect asset class return expectations?
Can someone explain the Grinold–Kroner model step by step with numbers?
How do you forecast fixed-income returns using the building-blocks approach?
PPP vs Interest Rate Parity for forecasting exchange rates — when do I use which?
Join the Discussion
Ask questions and get expert answers.